In that article, I provide basic counterexamples on sequences convergence. I follow on here with some additional and more advanced examples.
If \((u_n)\) converges then \((\vert u_n \vert )\) converge?
This is true and the proof is based on the reverse triangle inequality: \(\bigl| \vert x \vert – \vert y \vert \bigr| \le \vert x – y \vert\). However the converse doesn’t hold. For example, the sequence \(u_n=(-1)^n\) is such that \(\lim \vert u_n \vert = 1\) while \((u_n)\) diverges.
If for all \(p \in \mathbb{N}\) \(\lim\limits_{n \to +\infty} (u_{n+p} – u_n)=0\) then \((u_n)\) converges?
The assertion is wrong. A simple counterexample is \(u_n= \ln(n+1)\). It is well known that \((u_n)\) diverges. However for any \(p \in \mathbb{N}\) we have \(\lim\limits_{n \to +\infty} (u_{n+p} – u_n) =\ln(1+\frac{p}{n+1})=0\).
The converse proposition is true. Assume that \((u_n)\) is a converging sequence with limit \(l\) and \(p \ge 0\) is any integer. We have \(\vert u_{n+p}-u_n \vert = \vert (u_{n+p}-l)-(u_n-l) \vert \le \vert u_{n+p}-l \vert – \vert u_n-l \vert\) and both terms of the right hand side of the inequality are converging to zero. Continue reading Counterexamples on real sequences (part 2)→
We raise here the following question: “can a vector space \(E\) be written as a finite union of proper subspaces”?
Let’s consider the simplest case, i.e. writing \(E= V_1 \cup V_2\) as a union of two proper subspaces. By hypothesis, one can find two non-zero vectors \(v_1,v_2\) belonging respectively to \(V_1 \setminus V_2\) and \(V_2 \setminus V_1\). The relation \(v_1+v_2 \in V_1\) leads to the contradiction \(v_2 = (v_1+v_2)-v_1 \in V_1\) while supposing \(v_1+v_2 \in V_2\) leads to the contradiction \(v_1 = (v_1+v_2)-v_2 \in V_2\). Therefore, a vector space can never be written as a union of two proper subspaces.
We now analyze if a vector space can be written as a union of \(n \ge 3\) proper subspaces. We’ll see that it is impossible when \(E\) is a vector space over an infinite field. But we’ll describe a counterexample of a vector space over the finite field \(\mathbb{Z}_2\) written as a union of three proper subspaces. Continue reading A vector space written as a finite union of proper subspaces→
I’m used to publish mathematical counterexamples. But following January 7th attack in Paris against “Charlie Hebdo” journalists, my mind is busy with other topics.
Despite the willingness of some zealots, freedom of speech is and will remain alive.
We recall some definitions on open and closed maps. In topology an open map is a function between two topological spaces which maps open sets to open sets. Likewise, a closed map is a function which maps closed sets to closed sets.
For a continuous function \(f: X \mapsto Y\), the preimage \(f^{-1}(V)\) of every open set \(V \subseteq Y\) is an open set which is equivalent to the condition that the preimages of the closed sets (which are the complements of the open subsets) in \(Y\) are closed in \(X\). However, a continuous function might not be an open map or a closed map as we prove in following counterexamples. Continue reading Continuous maps that are not closed or not open→
We consider a vector space \(E\) and a linear map \(T \in \mathcal{L}(E)\) having a left inverse \(S\) which means that \(S \circ T = S T =I\) where \(I\) is the identity map in \(E\).
Let \(\mathbb{Q}_2\) be the ring of rational numbers of the form \(m2^n\) with \(m, n \in \mathbb{Z}\) and \(N = U(3, \mathbb{Q}_2)\) the group of unitriangular matrices of dimension \(3\) over \(\mathbb{Q}_2\). Let \(t\) be the diagonal matrix with diagonal entries: \(1, 2, 1\) and put \(H = \langle t, N \rangle\). We will prove that \(H\) is finitely generated and that one of its quotient group \(G\) is isomorphic to a proper quotient group of \(G\). Continue reading A finitely generated soluble group isomorphic to a proper quotient group→
The basic question that we raise here is the following one: given a group \(G\) and a proper subgroup \(H\) (i.e. \(H \notin \{\{1\},G\}\), can \(G/H\) be isomorphic to \(G\)? A group \(G\) is said to be hopfian (after Heinz Hopf) if it is not isomorphic with a proper quotient group.
All finite groups are hopfian as \(|G/H| = |G| \div |H|\). Also, all simple groups are hopfian as a simple group doesn’t have proper subgroups.
